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“A Proven, 4 Step NCLEX PN Review Strategy That ‘Jump Starts’ Your Practical Nurse Career”

You know, correctly answering your NCLEX PN questions is all that stands between you and your practical nurse license. However, thousands of practical nurse candidates fail and delay their career.


It’s due to lack of time invested in preparation and trying to going cheap on NCLEX PN review materials.

Straight out of high school or after working as a healthcare aide for most of your life, you took classes to become a Licensed Practical or Vocational Nurse (LPN or LVN). However, as your testing date rushes closer, fear, lack of confidence, missing test prep knowledge and test taking skills can destroy everything you worked hard to achieve.

To guarantee a passing score on your first try, you need ‘exam-like’ NCLEX PN practice questions. The following 4-step NCLEX-PN review process will help you get your review going in the right direction. These simple steps have saved thousands of practical nurse candidates weeks and even months of wasted time.

4 Step Process For Cracking NCLEX-PN Questions

In most surveys, nurses are the most trusted and respected people in the world. That’s probably not why you are entering the profession. One of the reasons for this trust is that the public knows nurses have gone through a rigorous educational process and have been tested to ensure that they have the basic knowledge and skills to care for patients in any setting.

Studying for and taking an exam is often a frustration and stressful experience. National Council Licensure Examination for Practical Nurses® or (NCLEX-PN®) is designed to make sure you have all the competencies needed to practice a professional licensed practical nurse. Take this opportunity to review your nursing education and sharpen skills you learned in your practical nurse courses. The end result will ensure you give the best care to patients who need you.

The pressure to perform well and pass the NCLEX-PN is extremely high. Failure means that you’ll have to wait to take the exam at a future date, perhaps delay your career and lose practical nursing income. The free NCLEX-PN practice questions at the bottom of this page and the review tips that follow will help you prepare for the exam and achieve your licensure as a practical or vocational nurse faster and easier.

Click here to: To See My Humiliating NCLEX PN Test Taking Story

1.) Predict Your Actual NCLEX PN Questions By Using The NCSBN Knowledge Statements

Many studies have been done over time that predict what sorts of questions will appear on the NCLEX PN exam. These surveys have been organized by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) into “Knowledge Statements.” The NCSBN is the organization that develops this standardized test so information from them is like gold!

nclex pn review test questions The Knowledge Statements represent those areas of knowledge that are considered most and least important for a newly licensed LPN/LVN. There were 219 areas that were evaluated by newly licensed LPN/LVNs, educators, supervisors, and Subject Matter Experts (SMEs). Each Knowledge Statement was evaluated on a 1-5 scale with 1 being “not important” and 5 being “Critically important” to the practice of a newly licensed LPN/LVN.

This survey can provide a good foundation for your beginning review for the NCLEX PN exam. If you have a good comfort level with each of the knowledge statements, you are probably very well prepared. In particular, study those areas in which you know you are weak.

In the survey conducted in 2013, the following areas were considered the most important Knowledge Statements for a new LPN/LVN:

    1. Client safety
    2. Legal scope of practice
    3. Medication
      1. Rights
      2. Administration
      3. Devices
      4. Dosage calculation
      5. Adverse reactions
      6. Administration protocols
    4. Signs and symptoms of allergic reaction and hypoglycemia
    5. Client status and condition
    6. Infection Control and standard precautions
    7. Vital Signs
    8. Respiratory Status
    9. Client identification
    10. Code of ethics
    11. Wound care
    12. Documentation
    13. Signs and symptoms of complications
    14. Emergency procedures
    15. Abnormal findings
    16. Respiratory status
    17. Client physical observation
    18. Basic Life Support

2.) Get NCLEX PN Practice Questions With Different Types Of Test Questions

nclex pn practice exam questions As you look for the best practice questions for the NCLEX-PN, you’ll undoubtedly come across a lot of books. Be sure the study guide you select has all the different types of sample questions. (The ones the NSCBN states are on the test.) Avoid losing valuable points during the exam due to unfamiliarity with the test format and wide variety of question types. Reviewing with different types of NCLEX-PN questions will ensure that you don’t get shaken on test day.

Get NCLEX-PN review questions that cover all the question types. Even if you feel confident in your understanding and mastery of the different question structures, don’t breeze over the tutorial at the beginning of the computerized test on exam day. It’s very possible you could have missed something in your NCLEX-PN review that is explained this tutorial. Test takers who rush and/or skim and scan instructions may miss important information given that are critical to pass.

In Your Search For NCLEX-PN Study Resources, Look For Sample Test Questions That Include:
    1. Multiple Choice – The multiple choice question is the type of question that you will encounter most often on your NCSBN exam. This is also the type of NCLEX-PN test question you probably saw most often in your nursing school program. In this type of question, there’s a question or statement (the stem of the question) followed by four possible responses. You are required to pick the BEST response. Be aware that in this type of question all of the responses may be correct, so you will need to select the “most correct” answer.

    2. Calculations – This type of question typically will be used for medication questions. Be sure your NCLEX-PN review questions and content covers how to convert pounds to kilograms and how to calculate drug doses. If you encounter this type of question, an online calculator will be included within the test so practice using a calculator on the computer during your review process.

    3. Charts and graphs – This category of practical nursing question evaluates your knowledge of how to use graphs in your practice. You might be presented with a series of vital signs and observations in a graphic. The question will be related to the data and the correct response will be based on your understanding of the data. Try not to get nervous if you see a chart – it is just another way of presenting you with information.

    4. Ordered Response – This NCLEX-PN exam question type will require that you be able to prioritize responses based on what is most important, second most important, etc. The ordered response question assumes that all of the responses are correct but that they should be done in a specific order. For an ordered response question, think about the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) and Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. The correct order will always be based on ordering the needs from the most basic physiological needs to the higher level needs.

3.) Forget What You Learned (If You Were A Nurse Aide)
Many LPNs start their professional careers as an aide. If that includes you, start now to change your patterns of thinking so that you begin to think like a nurse. Prior to this point, you were required to observe and do tasks. Your work day probably consisted of bathing patients and passing trays and water. As a practical nurse, you may eventually be asked to supervise aides and volunteers. The PN exam will test your ability to do the tasks of a licensed practical nurse. You must demonstrate you have some amount of leadership to those individuals that you will be supervising. Your scope of practice is changing so your way of thinking must change, too!

See this: FREE Study Guide Online To Pass Your Practical Nurse Exam Here
4.) Know The Scope Of Practice For A Practical Nurse
lpn review practice exam Every state will have a specific “scope of practice” that will guide what you can and cannot do as a practical nurse. NCLEX-PN questions will NOT test your knowledge of ‘state-specific requirements’ for the scope of practice. However, the “Nurse Practice Act” in all states will have certain general things in common…and these are the things that will be tested.

For example, LPNs are supervised by an RN or a physician; however, these groups cannot delegate work to an LPN that is specifically reserved for a higher level of training. Find NCLEX-PN practice questions that ask you about the work of the LPN within a scope of practice. For example, in-depth assessments and the creation of a plan of care are skills that are reserved for a Registered Nurse.

A response that indicates that an LPN is doing that sort of assessment or developing a plan of care will probably be the incorrect response. LPNs are generally not licensed to hang blood; a response that includes that task can usually be excluded as a correct answer. However, you WILL be responsible for doing more complex tasks and observing, documenting and reporting on the care you deliver as you help to implement the plan of care.

Practice with NCLEX PN test questions that ask you to select the task from a list that you can safely delegate to a trained aide. Read each question very closely and look at each answer separately. For each response, ask yourself the question: “Does this response really answer the question”.

Take the First Step In NCLEX PN Practice And Review Now

The first step in effective NCLEX-PN review is knowing the kind of information that will be on the test. Go to the NCSBN website now and begin to review the Knowledge Statements for Licensed Practical or Vocational Nurses on that site. The NCLEX PN practice questions below will help you learn the proficiencies measured and build your test taking skills (pivatol to pass the NCLEX-PN exam).

Using the NCLEX-PN questions below, determine where your weak areas are. Once you know your areas of weakness, find PN review study guides and practice questions that address your main areas of “needed improvement.” If a particular type of PN question is your weakness, practice those over and over.

Check-out: The Best Test Prep And Test Taking Advice I Ever Heard About Passing The NCLEX-PN Exam


The Official National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) website, including:

NCLEX PN Practice Questions: Basic Care and Comfort

1. Lactose intolerant patients may have which of the following for dessert:

A. Frozen yogurt
B. Ice cream
C. Low fat ice cream
D. No added sugar ice cream

2. Which intervention can reduce the discomfort of GERD?

A. Napping after a meal
B. Increasing fluid consumption before bedtime
C. Raising the head of the bed 6 inches
D. Increasing chocolate consumption

3. The nurse must give an injection of Vistaril IM. Since this medication is very irritating to tissue, the nurse should:

A. Use the smallest needle available
B. Skip the aspiration step
C. Massage the injection site vigorously
D. Use the Z – track method of administration

4. The nurse is preparing to perform discharge teaching for a female patient who came into the clinic suffering from a UTI. The most important thing for the nurse to stress is:

A. Wipe/ clean from front to back after toileting.
B. Always douche after having sex to wash away bacteria
C. Use germicidal, moist towels to clean the peri area after toileting
D. Take the prescribed medication until symptoms disappear

5. Which common food has been shown to increase the likelihood of gastric cancer? A. Milk and cheese
B. Carbonated drinks
C. Foods containing high amounts of refined sugar
D. Luncheon or sliced deli meats

6. A newborn who is jaundiced is receiving phototherapy. The nurse knows that this infant will need:

A. To be placed in isolation
B. To be given sterile water between formula feedings
C. Extra lotion to keep the infant’s skin from drying
D. To be given extra formula to prevent dehydration

7. Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk for developing bed sores (decubitus ulcers)?

A. The 70 year old, bedbound patient, who is malnourished
B. The incontinent patient who requires assistance to the toilet every two hours
C. The diabetic patient who is 80 years old but self ambulates and self-toilets
D. The obese patient with limited mobility, though she does use a wheelchair, and requires assistance to get to the bed or toilet

8. A CPC machine is utilized after a total knee replacement in order to:

A. Exercise the leg muscles and keep them strong
B. Flex the artificial joint and prevent stiffening
C. Decrease ambulation pain
D. Prevent deep vein thrombosis

9. A follow-up appointment is necessary 7-10 days after beginning antibiotic treatment for otitis media in a young child because:

A. A hearing test is required
B. A long term ear infection can cause hearing loss
C. Insurance won’t pay unless the second check is made
D. Parents can’t be trusted to give all of the medication to their child

10. Symptoms of pernicious anemia differs from other types of anemia because of: A. Feeling dizzy
B. Increased heart rate
C. Numbness / tingling of the hands and feet
D. SOB upon exertion

11. An infant’s birth weight was 7 pounds. She is in the clinic for her six-month check-up. The nurse expects her to weigh about:

A. 14 pounds
B. 10 pounds
C. 21 pounds
D. 25 pounds

NCLEX PN Practice Questions: Basic Care and Comfort – Answers and Rationales

1. Correct answer: A

The bacterial action used to make yogurt aids in the digestion of lactose. When frozen, bacterial action is stopped and minimal lactase remains. This allows patients who are lactose intolerant to enjoy frozen yogurt as a desert. B – C – and D are incorrect because no ice cream product is appropriate for a lactose intolerant patient.

2. Correct answer: C

Raising the head of the bed 3-6 inches allows gravity to assist with GERD since fluids do not travel uphill A – Lying down for a nap too soon after a meal can increase the discomfort of reflux disease B – Increasing fluids at bedtime can aggravate GERD D – Chocolate has been shown to increase GERD distress

3. Correct answer: D

Using the Z-track method of IM injection traps the medication in the muscle, preventing it from flowing back into the more tender subcutaneous tissue. A – A smaller needle may not deliver the medication deep into the muscle mass, and can cause more tissue injury. B – Never skip the aspiration step. Checking to make sure you are not administering the medication into a vein is very important. C – Massaging the injection site disperses the medication further into surrounding tissue and causes more irritation, damage, and discomfort.

4. Correct answer: A

Wiping from front to back will prevent E.coli, and other bacteria, from being introduced into the urethra. E-coli, which reside in the intestine, are the number one cause of UTIs in women. B – Douching has been shown to upset the pH balance and normal flora of the vagina, and does nothing to help UTIs. C – Antibacterial wipes can cause an overgrowth of yeast. D – If medication is not completed the infection can come back, requiring a stronger medication.

5. Correct answer: D

Studies have linked gastric cancer to processed and smoked meats. Early research indicates the nitrates in these foods may be the culprit. A – B – and C have not been linked to an increase in gastric cancer, so are incorrect answers.

6. Correct answer: B

The infant needs extra water to help rid his system of the bile. A – Isolation is not indicated for this infant C – The infant should not require more lotion than other infants D – The jaundiced infant does not require more formula than other infants of the same size

7. Correct answer: A

A bedbound patient who is malnourished at any age is most likely to develop skin problems. This patient must be repositioned at least every two hours, kept clean and dry, and be given a high protein diet to help minimize and / or heal skin damage. B – The incontinent patient who is taken to the toilet every two hours and kept clean and dry can avoid skin problems and may have the potential for bladder training. C – This patient has minimal risk for skin problems because of her ability for self-care. D – This patient is at risk for skin problems, but is at less risk than the bedbound, malnourished patient in answer A.

8. Correct answer: B

The CPC machine continuously flexes the new joint, preparing it for a smoother transition to ambulation. A – C – D – Each of these statements may be potential effects of this device, but not its primary purpose, so are incorrect answers.

9. Correct answer: B

The follow-up appointment is necessary to make sure the infection has cleared. If the antibiotic does not cure the infection, and the ear is not checked, a hearing deficit can occur as scar tissue builds up. A – C – and D are untrue, therefore incorrect answers.

10. Correct answer: C

Numbness and tingling in the extremities is a symptom particular to pernicious anemia. A – B – and D – These are symptoms of all anemia types.

11. Correct answer: A

The nurse knows that the infant’s weight should have doubled at six months. B – At 10 pounds, the infant may be under-weight, though other factors may be taken into consideration. C and D – Both of these answers would put the infant in the “over-weight” range, and parent teaching may be needed.

NCLEX PN Questions: Coordinated Care

1. A patient suffering from schizophrenia has become severely disruptive to the other patients and has to go to a quiet, secluded area. Which member of the staff has the authority to put a patient in seclusion?

A. A registered nurse
B. A security guard
C. A licensed practical nurse
D. The facility administrator

2. The RN charge nurse is admitting a new patient with a history of seizures to a medical unit. Which of the following can the LPN / LVN do to facilitate the process?

A. Provide tongue blades in easy reach of the bed
B. Perform the admission head-to-toe and history assessment
C. Set up and check equipment for oxygen and suction
D. Pad hard surfaces of the bed

3. The licensed practical /vocational nurse cannot be the primary care nurse for a client:

A. During stage four labor
B. Who is post appendectomy
C. With a central venous catheter (CVC)
D. With bipolar disorder

4. The physician has ordered Demerol (meperidine), 20 mg IM for an 8 yo pediatric patient. Demerol is available at 50 mg/ml. After the nurse calculates the dose the best practice is to:

A. Draw up the medication and administer it into the deltoid muscle
B. Have another nurse check the dosage calculation
C. Instruct the child to be still so it won’t hurt
D. Have the parents hold the child down

5. The nurse’s patient that is suffering from gout receives a dinner plate that includes fried shrimp. The nurse should:

A. Return the tray to the kitchen staff and ask for an appropriate protein for the patient
B. Set up the meal for the patient since it is appropriate
C. Ask the patient if he likes shrimp
D. Check the patient’s diet in the care plan

6. Which nursing intervention would be appropriate for a 4 yo patient with cerebral palsy that is beginning rehabilitation?

A. Putting a patch on one eye to make the muscles in the other stronger
B. Encouraging play with pinwheels and providing candy to suck on
C. Using music for auditory enhancement
D. Encouraging video games for hand/eye coordination

7. For proper understanding and performance of patient care tasks who should be included for the nursing “plan of care” meeting?

A. Direct care staff (usually LPNs and CNAs)
B. RN Nursing Supervisor and Activity Director
C. Family members and patient if able
D. All of the above

8. A woman introduces herself as a family member and questions the nurse in the hallway about an adult patient’s condition. The nurse’s response should be:

A. To update the family member on the patient’s condition
B. That they need a more private place to discuss it
C. That she (the nurse) cannot give out patient information
D. That the visitor will have to prove she is related before she can get the patient’s information

9. The oncoming nurse has taken report on her assigned patients from the nurse that is leaving. One of the patients is reported to be a DNR (Do Not Resuscitate). The oncoming nurse needs to immediately check the patient’s chart for:

A. The patient’s care plan
B. A physician’s DNR order and Living Will
C. I and O worksheet
D. Family and funeral home phone numbers

10. A 59 year old patient seems distraught and refuses her medication. The nurse should:

A. Hide the medication in the patients food
B. Tell the patient that she has to take the medication
C. Talk sternly to the patient to coerce her into taking the medication
D. Report the incident to the supervisor, document that the patient has refused to take her medication, and have another staff member observe and document that you have disposed of the medication

NCLEX PN Questions: Coordinated Care – Answers and Rationales

1. Correct answer: A

The supervising RN can put the patient in seclusion IF a licensed physician has written an order that stipulates the maximum time in seclusion. A patient that has been put in seclusion must be checked every 15 minutes, and released from the room as soon as they are calm enough to be with the other patients. B-C and D are incorrect because these staff members do not have the authority to take this measure with patients.

2. Correct answer: C

This task can be delegated to the LPN.
A – Tongue blades are not used on seizure patients
B – The admission history and physical must be performed by the RN
D – Policies for padding the bed rails vary between facilities. It is also dependent on the severity of the seizure activity. Patients and family members sometimes complain that the padding is embarrassing, so this is not an activity that would be performed until after the LPN has all of the needed information.

3. Correct answer: C

The patient with a central line must have an RN as their primary nurse.
A – The LPN can be assigned to the patient in the 4th stage of labor
B – The LPN can be assigned to the post-op patient
D – The LPN can be assigned to the patient with a bipolar disorder

4. Correct answer: B

Many medication errors are due to miscalculations. Having another nurse check your calculation not only prevents medication errors, it saves lives.
A – The deltoid muscle would not be appropriate for Demerol
C – Never lie to any patient. No matter what the age, IM Demerol hurts.
D – If needed, ask staff members for assistance, not the parents

5. Correct answer: A

Patients with Gout should refrain from shellfish, especially fried. A low fat, gout friendly diet can reduce the incidence of joint pain and inflammation.
B – The meal is not appropriate
C – Whether the patient likes fried shrimp is not relevant
D – The nurse should already be aware of the patient’s care plan and dietary needs

6. Correct answer: B

These activities will help strengthen the tongue muscle and give the child more control.
A and C are incorrect. Visual and auditory devices are usually required for these deficits
D – This child is not old enough for this activity

7. Correct answer: D

Everyone who cares for, or is knowledgeable about the patients’ needs should be involved in the plan of care. A – B and C are incorrect because each group should be involved with planning patient care.

8. Correct answer: C

Staff members are required to respect patient privacy and confidentiality by law.
A – B and D are incorrect. Even close family members are not excluded from the patient confidentiality laws. Unless the patient requests that a staff member give friends or relatives information, or has a legal guardian under certain circumstances, staff cannot give out any information.

9. Correct answer: B

The nurse needs to know that all orders and legal paperwork is in order when caring for a DNR patient.
A – The care plan should always be consulted, but does not take priority in this case
C – The I and O worksheet would not take precedence at this point in the shift
D – Irrelevant information for the LPN

10. Correct answer: D

The patient has the right to refuse the medication, and the nurse must follow protocol to report, document, and dispose of the medication.
A – B and C are incorrect. It is a violation of the patients’ rights to trick or force her into taking medication. Speaking sternly or in a harsh manner is verbal abuse.

NCLEX PN Review: Pharmacological Therapies

1. The medication that is most often involved in a life threatening error is:

A. Furosemide
B. Insulin
C. Morphine
D. Reglan

2. Fosamax, a drug given for prevention of osteoporosis can cause:

A. Osteonecrosis of the mandible
B. Low blood calcium
C. Brittle bones
D. Muscle loss

3. Nurse Diane’s patient, who has CHF, is taking Digoxin every day. The nurse knows that the mechanism of action causes:

A. The heart to beat faster and more efficiently
B. Sustained electrical impulses because of decreased calcium and potassium to the heart muscle
C. The heart rate to decrease and become stronger
D. None of the above

4. Sub-lingual Nitroglycerin causes all of the following except:

A. Headache
B. Dilatation of blood vessels
C. Increased blood pressure
D. Increased blood to the heart muscle

5. A patient with chronic indigestion has been prescribed Basal gel. The nurse will teach the patient side effect of this medication, one of which is:

A. Increased confusion
B. Diarrhea
C. Constipation
D. Gas

6. The post-op patient has orders for Demerol 75mg IM and Phenergan 25mg IM q 3-4 hours prn pain. This combination of medication produces a:

A. Antagonist effect
B. Agonist effect
C. Excitatory effect
D. Synergistic effect

7. The patient is due for a dose of Lanoxin. The patient’s apical heart rate is 54. The best nursing intervention for this patient is to:

A. Put the medication on hold and call the doctor
B. Document the vital signs and give the medication
C. Give the medication and take vital signs q 15 minutes
D. Wait for the heart rate to stabilize before giving the medication

8. Which medication can cause symptoms of Parkinson disease?

A. Cogentin
B. Depakote
C. Benadryl
D. Zyprexa

9. A diabetic patient has been prescribed Glucotrol XL. The nurse’s teaching will include the best time to take the medication which is:

A. At breakfast
B. At lunch
C. Morning and night
D. At HS (hour of sleep)

10. A patient undergoing chemotherapy is scheduled to have Zofran PO 30 minutes before chemo begins. Zofran:

A. Induces sleep
B. Prevents nausea
C. Protects the immune system
D. Protects from hair loss

11. Dilantin is ordered for an in-patient with seizure activity. This patient’s care plan should address:

A. Oral hygiene/gum care
B. Vital signs before medication
C. Strict I&O
D. Nausea prevention

12. Which physician’s medication order is complete?

A. Demerol 50mg. IM prn pain
B. Vicodin 75mg po q 4-6 hours prn pain
C. Tylenol 3, 1po prn headache
D. Phenergan supp. q 6 hours

13. An 8 year old patient who weighs 65 pounds is prescribed oral prednisone, 20mg every 6 hours. It is available in liquid form at 4mg per 5mls. How much will the nurse give the child?

A. 20 mls
B. 10 mls
C. 16 mls
D. 8 mls

14. A medication must be given based on the patient’s weight. The nurse knows that to convert 125 pounds into kilograms she must:

A. Divide 125 by 2.2
B. Multiply 125 by 2.2
C. Multiply 125 by 2.2 and divide by pi
D. Divide 125 by 2.2 and multiply by pi

NCLEX PN Review: Pharmacological Therapies – Answers and Rationales

1. Correct answer: B

Insulin has the highest error rate of any medication administered by medical personnel or patients who self-medicate. The balance of insulin needed in the body is fragile, and too much or too little can result in coma and death.
A-C and D can be life threatening at high doses and for various reasons, but none are responsible for as many complications or deaths as Insulin.

2. Correct answer: A

Fosamax can cause a loss of blood to bone joints, including the jaw or mandible, causing bone death and extreme pain to the patient.
B – C and D are not side effects of Fosamax

3. Correct answer: C

Digoxin increases the strength of each cardiac contraction, increasing circulation, and decreasing the per-minute heart rate.
A – The faster the heart rate, the less efficient each beat.
B – Electrical impulses are decreased, causing the slowing and strengthening of each beat
D – Answer C is correct

4. Correct Answer: C

Nitro causes an immediate drop in blood pressure; therefore, answer C is wrong as it indicates a rise in blood pressure
A – B and D are all effects of sublingual nitro

5. Correct answer: C

Constipation is a common side effect of basal gel, prescribed for stomach ulcers, chronic indigestion, and acid reflux
A – B and D are not side effects of oral basal gel

6. Correct answer: D

These medications, when used together, produce a synergistic effect. This means that they each enhance the effect of the other, providing more pain control.
A – In an antagonistic effect the medications work against each other and do not produce a therapeutic result
B – Agonist drugs bind at cellular receptors to block other drugs, allergens, or hormones.
C – Excites a nerve cell to make it receptive to other information

7. Correct answer: A

Digoxin is withheld and the doctor is contacted if the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute since the medication will slow the heart further
B – C and D are incorrect because they do not give priority to patient safety and physician notification

8. Correct answer: D

One of the more common side effects of Zyprexa is Parkinson symptoms
A – Cogentin decreases Parkinson symptoms, and is prescribed for the disease
B – Depakote is prescribed for seizures and does not cause symptoms of Parkinson’s disease
C – Benadryl is an antihistamine that does not cause symptoms of Parkinson’s disease

9. Correct answer: A

Glucotrol XL is an extended release medication that controls blood sugar all day, peaking at 6-12 hours. Usually prescribed to be taken with breakfast.
B – Since this medication takes up to two hours to become active, lunch would be too late in the day for administration. The 6 – 12 hour peak could cause hypoglycemia during the night, and the Glucotrol XL would not prevent hyperglycemia early in the day.
C – Night dosing is not recommended, and this medication is prescribed once a day
D – Danger of hypoglycemia during sleep

10. Correct answer: B

Zofran is a nausea preventative often used for cancer patients
A – C and D are incorrect answers, as Zofran is not prescribed for sleep, immune protection, or hair loss

11. Correct answer: A

Dilantin use causes overgrowth of the gum tissue that is attached to the teeth and bone structures. The gums become painful, bleed easily, and the teeth can become loose. Oral care and related teaching is of primary concern for this patient.
B – C and D are not concerns related to Dilantin use

12. Correct answer: B

Drug name, dosage amount, route, and how often are all covered in this order
A – and C – Does not tell the nurse how often to administer
D – Does not give a dosage amount. Phenergan suppositories come in a 25mg or 50mg dose.

13. Correct answer: C

Each milliliter contains 0.8 mg. (4 mg in 5 mls = 4 divided by 5) The dose calculation is 0.8 mg per ml X 20 mg = 16 mls
A – B – and D are incorrect calculations

14. Correct answer: A

1 kilogram = 2.2 pounds, so to convert pounds to kilograms you must divide pounds by 2.2. The answer will be the weight of the patient in kilograms.
B – C – and D would all be incorrect calculationsnclex practice questions

I hope you’re finding these NCLEX RN practice questions helpful. These sample questions cover the current NSCBN Test Plan for the practical nurse exam. This NCLEX PN review material is very representative of the knowledge measured and types of questions you’ll see.

Don’t miss this: FREE, No Obligation 7 Days Of One-On-One NCLEX-PN Review Help On My Other Page

PN Practice Question: Physiological Adaptation

1. A plan of care is being created for a patient with Multiple Sclerosis. The bowel training plan would not include:

A. Increased fiber intake
B. Reduction of fluids
C. An elevated toilet seat
D. Scheduled toileting

2. A patient diagnosed with depression is admitted with possible serotonin syndrome. This can be caused by:

A. Using more than one SSRI
B. High intake of food containing tyramine
C. Decreased dopamine level
D. Use of pseudoephedrine medications

3. Secondary syphilis is associated with which physical assessment finding: A. The patient has well defined lesions on palms of hands, soles of feet, and perineum
B. Deep granulomatous lesions
C. No visible sores or lesions
D. Painless lesions on the fingers, perineum, and eyelids

4. A patient with an above the knee amputation has a post-op order to wrap the stump in an elastic bandage. The rational for the nurse to perform this treatment is because:

A. It will help shrink the stump
B. It will slow bleeding
C. It will help lessen phantom pain
D. It will prevent the patient seeing the fresh stump

5. Which assessment finding in a preschool child suggests child abuse?

A. Eagerness to communicate with strangers
B. Going to sleep while sucking his thumb
C. Rainbow bruises
D. Crying while having a painful medical procedure

6. Management of Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) includes the dietary restriction of:

A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Zinc

7. A patient who had a stroke is suffering from apraxia. This patient will:

A. Not be able to talk
B. Be unable to swallow
C. Have difficulty with mobility
D. Have to relearn simple skills

8. Which factor has the most influence on a patient’s success when recovering from a chemical addiction? A. Quality of the rehabilitation program and follow up
B. Family support and understanding
C. Staff attitude toward the patient
D. The patient’s strength of desire to recover and remain drug free

9. A pediatric patient with cystic fibrosis must take pancreatic enzymes each time he eats a meal or snack. What assessment indicates the amount of pancreatic enzymes taken is sufficient?

A. Weight gain
B. Pulse oximetry reading of 100%
C. Low sodium excretion
D. Low chloride excretion

10. The nurse is doing discharge teaching for a patient that has had her pancreas removed due to cancer. The patient asks how long she will have to take insulin. The nurses response is:

A. Until lab work comes back normal
B. Continually for the rest of the patient’s life
C. At least 6 months
D. Until the physician changes her to oral hypoglycemic medication

11. Discharge teaching for a patient with a Metamucil (psyllium) prescription should include which of the following instructions:

A. The medication may be dissolved in Jello or ice cream
B. Swallow the medication and follow with milk
C. Mix the Metamucil in water and drink the mixture immediately
D. Skip the next meal after taking the medication

12. Which element would be included in the teaching plan of a patient with a hiatal hernia?

A. Limit carbohydrates
B. Eat a soft diet
C. Remain upright after meals
D. Take a nap after meals

PN Practice Questions: Physiological Adaptation – Answers and Rationales

1. Correct answer: B

Reducing fluids would be counterproductive to the bowel regime. Adequate fluids are imperative in reducing constipation. A – C – and D would all be included in the care plan. Increased fiber assists with peristalsis, going at the same time each day actually “trains” the bowel and the elevated toilet seat make the transfer easier for both the patient and the caregiver.

2. Correct answer: A

The combination of drugs that affect serotonin levels can cause a life threatening condition known as serotonin syndrome, serotonin storm, or serotonin toxicity.
B – This answer only refers to a hypertensive effect that ingestion of tyramine can produce when the patient is taking a MAO inhibitor
C – Refers to temperature elevation caused by any antipsychotic medication, though increased temperature is a symptom of serotonin syndrome, the decreased dopamine level does not mimic the other symptoms of serotonin syndrome
D – This answer refers to hypertension that result from MAO inhibitors that are taken concurrently with cold medications containing pseudoephedrine

3. Correct answer: A

This finding is common in secondary syphilis. Once these lesions erode, leaving behind pink or gray tissue, they are very contagious.
B – Late syphilis presents with this finding
C – This is the latent stage of syphilis
D – Primary syphilis sign

4. Correct answer: A

Shrinking the stump and preventing swelling is necessary to prepare it for a prosthetic.
B – The bandage is not meant to control bleeding
C – The bandage will have no effect on phantom pain
D – It may be best for the patient to not view the area, but this is not the reason for the elastic bandage

5. Correct answer: C

Bruises that are in different stages of healing are various colors, hence the term “Rainbow” bruising. These types of bruises suggest abuse, but they are not conclusive proof. An investigation has to be performed by the proper authorities.
A – Child abuse victims are usually timid and do not readily talk to strangers
B – Thumb-sucking is a normal activity for this age group
D – This answer is normal behavior. An abused child may show little emotion at the prospect of pain, or even the pain itself

6. Correct answer: B

A sodium-restricted diet is necessary for the CHF patient because it causes retention of fluid that can cause life-threatening complications of CHF.
A – C – and D are incorrect answers because these are not restricted for a CHF patient

7. Correct answer: D

Apraxia is a condition in which the patient does not remember the purpose of everyday objects. This patient will look at a toothbrush and not know its function. Therefore, the patient will have to relearn to brush his teeth.

A – Aphasia is the inability to speak
B – Dysphagia is the inability to swallow properly
C – Ataxia is difficulty or inability to move body parts

8. Correct answer: D

The patient’s desire has the most influence on success
A – B – And D are important, but the greatest influence is the patient’s will and attitude.

9. Correct answer: A

Pancreatic enzymes are necessary for the digestive process. If the child is gaining weight, the enzyme replacement is working.
B – C – D – None of these answers affects pancreatic enzymes, nor do they affect the effectiveness of the enzymes

10. Correct answer: B

Since the pancreas is the body’s only source of insulin, injections will be necessary for replacement. The nurse must stress how important it is to keep blood glucose under control.
A – This answer has no relevance
C – Pancreas removal necessitates continuation of insulin administration
D – Oral hypoglycemic medication is not an alternative to insulin in this situation

11. Correct answer: C

Metamucil should be mixed in water and taken immediately. Otherwise, it will become too thick to drink.
A – B – and D are all incorrect instructions for this stool softening medication.

12. Correct answer: C

Staying in an upright position after meals will decrease the incidence of gastric reflux and heartburn.
A – B – Neither of these answers are a necessary part of teaching for this condition
D – Laying down after eating will exacerbate the symptoms of the patient’s condition and discomfort.

Go to: NCLEX-PN Study And Test Taking Secrets I Used To Get A Passing Score

NCLEX PN Exam Questions: Psychosocial Integrity

1. A patient’s husband is concerned about his wife who recently lost her father. Which statement, made after the death of a parent, signals possible abnormal grieving?

A.”She acts normal in her daily routine, like nothing has happened.”
B. “She is still experiencing severe bouts of crying and is unable to give away his things.”
C. “She only remembers the good things and refuses to hear anything bad about him.”
D. “She has been depressed since the funeral and makes excuses when her friends want to come over.”

2. The nurse has a patient with brain cancer that has begun refusing to care for herself. Which nursing intervention would be best for this patient?

A. Notify the patient’s physician about the change in attitude.
B. Alternate the caregiver each day so that no one caregiver is overwhelmed with the patient’s increasing demands.
C. Use therapeutic communication skills, exploring reasons for her decreased self-care.
D. Change her care plan to reflect her increased dependence on staff care.

3. The nurse asks a new patient if he has a living will or advance directive. She needs this information because:

A. The advance directive helps make sure the patient’s wishes are followed even if he can’t voice them, and decreases chaos among family members.
B. The nurse is curious regarding the patient’s funeral arrangements.
C. Advance directives are the only way to instigate euthanasia
D. Advance directive gives medical personnel the right to make medical decisions for the patient

4. A bulimic patient must be:

A. Watched for up to two hours after a meal
B. Given privacy during and after mealtime
C. Exercised after meals
D. Offered only foods on her list of preferences

5. The patient is being discharged. She has been prescribed a Tricyclic Antidepressant. The nurse should include all of the following discharge instructions except:

A. Call the doctor if your mood has not stabilized within a week
B. Call the doctor if your mood worsens or you feel suicidal
C. It may take several weeks for the medication to produce the desired effect
D. Do not take any herbal supplements without talking to your doctor

6. A patient with an antisocial disorder has been admitted for evaluation of anger issues. An important part of nursing care for this patient is:

A. Encouraging the patient to act out their feelings
B. Setting realistic goals and limitations
C. Keeping the patient isolated with minimal interaction
D. Use chemical restraints to maintain control of the patient

7. The common thread seen in patients diagnosed with passive-aggressive personality disorder is:

A. Codependence
B. High IQ
C. Hidden hostility
D. Poor impulse control

8. A pediatric patient is scheduled for surgery. Her parents state that blood transfusions are against their religious beliefs and refuse to sign the consent forms. Which of the following is the most appropriate and immediate nursing action?

A. Notification of the parents refusal to the doctor
B. Documentation of the situation
C. Encourage the parents to consider the medical consequences to their child
D. Call child protective services

9. Your patient has a history of barbiturate abuse and suddenly stopped using the drug. Withdrawal symptoms you will assess for include:

A. Depressed mood and suicidal thoughts
B. Leg spasms and abdominal pain
C. Mania and euphoria
D. Tachycardia and diarrhea

10. A patient with a diagnosis of early to mid-Alzheimer’s disease is being admitted to a long-term care facility. Which plan will be therapeutic for the patient?

A. Placing several mirrors and pictures where she can easily see them
B. Scheduling caregivers on a rotating basis
C. Hang simple signs for easy location of the bedroom, toilet, dining area at eye level
D. Place soft rugs in the room in case the patient falls

NCLEX PN Exam Questions: Psychosocial Integrity – Answers and Rationales

1. Correct answer: A

Appearing not to grieve, or appearing not to feel sad can signify abnormal grieving. Suppressing grief can lead to more serious mental health problems later on, like clinical depression. B – C and D are all part of normal grief patterns that should subside with time.

2. Correct answer: C

The nurse should use open-ended questions and other therapeutic communication techniques to try to find the underlying cause of her self-care deficit. Causes could be depression and grief, she could have anemia and just lack the energy to do normal activities, or there may be increased pain that the patient hasn’t verbalized.
A – The physician will need to be notified, but you may have a better idea of what is wrong if you talk to the patient first.
B – Alternating caregivers will have no benefit for the patient, and may upset the patient further.
D – The care plan may need to have additional information and nursing diagnosis, but first the staff needs to know what the problem is.

3. Correct answer: A

Advanced directives, or living wills, legally and properly signed in front of witnesses gives the medical team explicit instructions on an unconscious patient’s medical desires and expectations. The document should be in its place on the chart as soon as possible.
B – C and D are all incorrect answers.

4. Correct answer: A

Patients who are bulimic must be observed after meals for vomiting.
B – Privacy will give the patient time to vomit unobserved, so this answer is wrong.
C – Exercising after meals may be an option depending on their condition, but it is not the best answer for this question.
D – Foods on her preference list may not be appropriate for the patient.

5. Correct answer: A

One week is not enough time for the antidepressant to become therapeutic.
B-C and D are correct teaching points for this patient; therefore, they are wrong answers.

6. Correct answer: B

This patient needs parameters set for appropriate, socially tolerable behavior
A – The patient is here because he has already been “acting out”
C – Isolation should not be used unless absolutely necessary, and then only for short periods if the patient becomes aggressive
D – Chemical restraints will not help this patient recover and learn to control his own actions

7. Correct answer: C

Passive-aggressive disorder develops in patients who withhold hostile feelings. When this happens, the anger will appear in different forms that may look like accidents or forgetfulness.
A – B These patients are not necessarily codependent nor do they all have high IQs
D – Passive aggressive people have control over their impulses and actions unless they get to a breaking point

8. Correct answer: A

The physician must be notified immediately. In some serious circumstances, the doctor may get a court order and override the parents’ wishes.
B – You must document the situation, but not before you notify the doctor.
C – D The nurse cannot justify trying to convince the parents that their beliefs are wrong, and the doctor or nurse supervisor should inform CPS if it becomes appropriate.

9. Correct answer: D

Since Barbiturates are “downers”, they have a sedative effect. When suddenly stopped, they have a rebound effect causing tachycardia, tachypnea, and diarrhea.
A – Not symptoms of withdrawal from barbiturates
B – Cramps and abdominal pain are too vague to be related on their own to this withdrawal
C – Mania and euphoria are not symptoms of this withdrawal process

10. Correct answer: C

Hanging the clear, simple signs will help the patient become accustomed to the layout so she will be able to move around the facility with minimal assistance. This plan will help decrease the patient’s anxiety, and encourage comfort.
A – Too many mirrors and pictures can be disconcerting to an Alzheimer patient.
B – Caregivers should be the same each day when possible. Different ones each day will add to the patient’s confusion and inhibit bonding and trust.
D – Area rugs cause falls, and as the patient’s disease progresses, she may refuse to walk across them and will feel imprisoned.

Practical Nurse Exam Questions: Reduction of Risk Potential

1. The nurse is teaching the parents of a child with hemophilia how to handle the day-to-day problems of this disorder. For pain and fever the nurse will tell the parents to administer:

A. Aspirin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Naprosyn
D. Acetaminophen

2. After a Grand Mal seizure, the nurse knows it is normal for her patient to:

A. Have partial paralysis
B. Have low blood pressure
C. Be sleepy and lethargic
D. Remember events during the seizure

3. An AIDS patient asks for a pitcher of water at his bedside. The nurse explains that:

A. Sitting water has increased bacteria
B. The nurse can’t get an accurate I and O if the patient is drinking from a pitcher
C. The patient needs to drink more milk and juice
D. The patient is getting the fluid he needs from the IV

4. An infant has been hospitalized with a diagnosis of botulism. The nurse questions the parents, and suspects the botulism originated from:

A. A turtle aquarium kept for an older sibling
B. Contaminated baby food
C. Formula acquired from a discount store
D. Honey used to sweeten the baby’s cereal

5. The patient has peptic ulcer disease. Which vital signs should be reported to the nurse supervisor immediately? A. HR 120, BP 80/60
B. HR 70, respirations 16
C. HR 54, BP 120/88
D. HR 80, respirations 20

6. The nurse is prepping her patient for a surgical procedure to be performed under general anesthesia. The patient tells the nurse that she uses Kava-Kava (piper methysticum) every night to help her sleep. The nurse must immediately notify the physician because:

A. Kava decreases the need for post-surgical antibiotics
B. Kava increases the effect of anesthesia and analgesic medication
C. Kava decreases the functionality of the immune system
D. Kava causes mental disturbances that may make the signed consent invalid

7. The post-partum nurse is teaching the mother how to care for her baby’s circumcision. Which of the following statements indicate that further teaching is necessary?

A. “Petroleum and gauze should be applied one time a day.”
B. “A heat lamp will help the wound heal faster.”
C. “The circumcised area must be cleaned gently during diaper changes.”
D. “Report to the doctor any sign of infection.”

8. The nurses’ patient has undergone a right nephrolithotomy. The post-op patient must be positioned:

A. Prone
B. Supine
C. On the patients’ right side
D. On the patients’ left side

9. A nurse goes to her supervisor with red, peeling, and swollen hands. The supervisor suspects:

A. The nurse has not been washing between patient care duties
B. The nurse has not been using appropriate soap or disinfectant
C. The nurse has an allergy to latex
D. The nurse has become infected with MRSA

10. During the nurses’ teaching for a patient receiving Rheumatrex (methotrexate), she should be sure the patient understands that:

A. Acetaminophen cannot be taken with Rheumatrex
B. Aspirin cannot be taken with Rheumatrex
C. Omega 3 fish oil cannot be taken with Rheumatrex
D. Multivitamins cannot be taken with Rheumatrex

11. A nurse that has been recently licensed has a patient that has an order for a unit of whole blood. The facet of care appropriate for this new nurse in this situation is:

A. Monitoring vital signs
B. Starting the IV with normal saline
C. Notifying the physician of signs of a reaction to the blood
D. Starting the blood transfusion

12. Dilantin is being administered via an NG (nasogastric) tube that is a continuous feed. The nurse knows that she must:

A. Flush the NG tube with 5 mls of saline after administering the medication
B. Flush the NG tube with 2-4 mls of water before the medication
C. Flush the NG tube with 2-4 oz. of water before and after the medication
D. Flush the NG tube with 2-4 mls of saline before and after the medication and clamp the tube

Practical Nurse Exam Questions: Reduction of Risk Potential – Answers and Rationales

1. Correct answer: D

Acetaminophen (Tylenol) will not affect bleeding time
A – B – and C are all NSAIDS (non-steroidal, anti-inflammatory drugs), which will prolong bleeding time, so they are incorrect answers

2. Correct answer: C

The postictal patient will be tired, sleepy, and weak from the stress put on the muscles during a grand mal seizure. This patient may sleep for several hours.
A – Paralysis is not common in a post seizure patient
B – Blood pressure would be increased
D – Patients usually have no memory of the seizure

3. Correct answer: A

Every measure should be taken to protect the AIDS patient from unnecessary bacterial exposure. Since water that may sit for hours has allowed for increased bacteria, it should not be used. Water served by the glass is best, and should not sit for more than 30 minutes at the patient’s bedside.
B – This is an untrue statement
C – Milk and juice is not a replacement for water intake
D – Whenever possible, oral fluid intake should be maintained

4. Correct answer: D

Honey is dangerous to children less than two years old because of the potential for Clostridium botulinum bacterial infection.
A – Turtles may infect children with salmonella, but not botulism
B – Any illness from modern baby food is extremely rare unless the child has a food allergy
C – Discounted formula should be as safe as any other as long as it is not out of date

5. Correct answer: A

The increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure indicates possible internal blood loss.
B – C – D None of these answers indicate a an emergency or ulceration complication

6. Correct answer: B

Kava-Kava is a CNS depressant, so it will increase the effects of anesthetics and analgesic medications. Patients sometimes forget to mention “herbal” medication and don’t realize it can be dangerous, especially when mixed with prescriptions.
A – C – and D are all untrue statements

7. Correct answer: B

Heat lamps can cause burns to the newborns skin and are a hazard.
A – C – and D are all true answers, things that the post-partum nurse would include in her teaching.

8. Correct answer: D

A patient with a nephrolithotomy is always positioned on the opposite site from the surgical site.
A – B – and C are all incorrect positions for this patient.

9. Correct answer: C

These are common symptoms of an allergic reaction to latex gloves. The facility must provide protective gloves made of a different material for these employees.
A – B – and D are not related to these symptoms

10. Correct answer: D

Multivitamins contain Niacin, which counteracts Rheumatrex
A – B – and C are helpful for patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and can be administered with Rheumatrex

11. Correct answer: A

The new nurse can monitor vital signs and report to the supervisor.
B – C – and D are responsibilities of the RN, or a more experienced, certified LPN.

12. Correct answer: C

The NG tube is flushed with enough water to make sure it flows freely, then the medication is administered, and enough water is used to flush it through the tube and into the digestive system. Since this is a continuous feed to the patient, the tube is not clamped.
A – B – nor D gives the correct procedure, nor the correct amounts of flushing liquid. In addition, water is used for flushing the NG tube, not saline.

NCLEX-PN Review Practice Questions: Safety and Infection Control

1. A post-surgical patient with a colon resection has a severe coughing episode that caused the wound to eviscerate. The nurses first action is to:

A. Using sterile gloves, push the protruding organ back into place and cover with gauze
B. Using sterile gloves, wet sterile 4x4s with normal saline and cover the evisceration
C. Apply pressure to the wound and call for help
D. Call the supervisor to report the incident and receive instructions

2. When the nurse is prepping the patient for a surgical procedure, it is important to remove:

A. A hearing aid
B. An artificial eye
C. A wedding ring
D. Contact lenses

3. What part of a patient’s history is important when assessing the risk for hyperphosphatemia?

A. Previous radiation treatment of the neck
B. Previous orthopedic surgery
C. A sedentary lifestyle
D. Diet

4. An LPN/LVN cannot:

A. Obtain specimens
B. Begin a blood transfusion
C. Insert or discontinue an indwelling urinary catheter
D. Calculate gtts per minute for isotonic saline

5. What inappropriate action by a licensed nurse would indicate the need for educational intervention?

A. Removing a dressing without wearing gloves
B. Elevating the head of the patient’s bed to a 45 degree angle for a blood pressure check
C. Using the Z-track method to inject B12
D. Repositioning the patient using pillows for support

6. The patient has an order for a culture to be obtained to rule out PID (pelvic inflammatory disease). The nurse will obtain the culture material by:

A. Drawing blood
B. Obtaining a stool specimen
C. Swabbing vaginal secretions
D. Obtaining a urine specimen

7. A patient is in isolation due to low white blood cells related to the diagnosis of leukemia. This patient’s food should be served:

A. In sealed, single serving packages by the nurse
B. On a covered tray by the assistant server
C. With plastic, disposable knife and fork
D. As a soft, easy to swallow diet

8. The oncology nurse has received lab work on her patient. The wbc is 1000, platelets are 150,000, and the rbc count is 250,000. The patient has a visitor with a cough. The appropriate nursing action would be to:

A. Require the visitor to wear a mask and gown
B. Have the visitor wash his hands
C. Ask the visitor to leave the unit
D. Ask the visitor his relationship to the patient before he enters the room

9. A major component in the eradication of pinworms (Enterobiasis) is:

A. Medication must be continued for 90 days
B. IV treatment is required
C. Oral medication and topical medication must be utilized together
D. Everyone living in the household must be treated at the same time

10. A surgical patient, just discharged from recovery, was admitted back to the Med-Surg unit. The nurse is aware that the best procedure to prevent wound infection is to:

A. Give the prescribed antibiotic on time
B. Wash hands for at least two minutes prior to administering care
C. Provide patient care only while wearing a mask
D. Place an Isolation sign on the patient’s door

NCLEX-PN Review Practice Questions: Safety and Infection Control – Answers and Rationales

1. Correct answer: B

The wound and protruding intestine should be covered with sterile 4×4 gauze wet with saline until the patient can be taken back to surgery.
A – Reinsertion and stabilization requires a surgeon
C – Applying pressure to this wound is not an appropriate nursing action
D – Though the incident must be reported to the nurse supervisor and the physician, the nurse’s first order of business is to protect the patient from further
harm. The moist, sterile gauze will keep the protruding organ moist, won’t stick to it, and will help keep the area clean.

2. Correct answer: D

Contact lenses can become dry and irritating in the surgical environment, sometimes becoming adhered to the cornea.
A – B Leaving the hearing aid / artificial eye in place is not harmful to the patient
C – Wedding bands can be left on, especially if the patient doesn’t want it removed. It is usually secured with tape.

3. Correct answer: A

Neck radiation can cause damage to the parathyroid glands. This can affect calcium and phosphorus regulation.
B – No relationship to the situation
C – D Are both incorrect because they do not relate to changes in phosphorus, but have a relationship to calcium.

4. Correct answer: B

An RN must begin and monitor the patient’s status during blood transfusions
A – An LPN may obtain samples for the lab to use for cultures
C – LPNs may insert and discontinue urinary catheters as long as the company policy and state laws approve
D – Calculation of the IV rate for a gravity drip is not outside the realm of LPN skills, but any nurse should double check their calculation

5. Correct answer: A

Dressings must be removed wearing gloves to protect both the patient and the nurse. The contaminated gloves are discarded with the old dressing material and clean gloves donned before replacing the dressing.
B – C and D are all correct procedures

6. Correct answer: C

PID causes a heavy, odorous, vaginal discharge with moderate to severe abdominal pain. The culture will help define the bacteria and appropriate antibiotic treatment. A – B and D are not indicated for a culture regarding PID

7. Correct answer: A

The food should be sealed to prevent contamination while introducing as few pathogens as possible to the immune compromised patient. It should be delivered by the primary care nurse to decrease the chance of infection that can be introduced by various healthcare workers.
B – The normal covered trays are not secure enough for this patient. The patient should be exposed to as few caregivers as possible.
C – Plastic ware may be used by the patient, but is not mandatory
D – Nothing indicates that this patient should be on a soft diet.

8. Correct answer: A

Providing the visitor with the necessary equipment to protect the patient from microbes is the best solution.
B – Hand washing alone will not protect the patient from the microbes in the spittle of the visitors cough.
C – D These options can violate the patient’s rights to socialize with friends and family unless he is under isolation. In addition, the patient needs interaction with visitors to meet his psychosocial needs.

9. Correct answer: D

All family members need to treatment to kill worms and eggs, and prevent re-infestation.
A – Medication for pinworm is usually given in a chewable pill. The treatment must be repeated in two weeks in case any eggs hatch after the first treatment.
B – IV medication is not required for pinworm
C – Topical medication is not used for pinworm

10. Correct answer: B

Hand washing is the number one preventer of the spread of microbes that cause infection.
A – Antibiotics cure bacterial infection. They do not prevent infections from occurring, especially viral infection.
C – Wearing a mask is not the preventative method of choice in this case.
D – There is no indication that this patient needs to be in isolation.

NCLEX-PN Test Practice Questions: Health Promotion and Maintenance

1. The nurse completes her patient care task, and washes her hands before leaving the room. Once her hands are clean and dry, she uses a clean and dry paper towel to turn off the faucet. Why?

A. So that the faucet does not become contaminated
B. So that her hands remain sterile
C. So that the faucet handle does not contaminate her clean hands
D. So that the faucet handle remains sterile

2. Mr. Sanchez is brought to the ER complaining of dizziness, sweating, and mid-sternal chest pain. During the initial evaluation, the nurse finds him to be tachycardiac. Tachycardiac means that:

A. Mr. Sanchez has a heart rate above 100 bpm (beats per minutes)
B. Mr. Sanchez has a heart rate less than 100 bpm
C. Mr. Sanchez has chest pain that rates 7 on the pain scale
D. Mr. Sanchez has a respiratory rate < 30

3. Miss Hays is a 60 year old who has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Her nurse knows that more diabetic teaching is necessary when Miss Hays states:

A. “I won’t have to take shots if my pills, diet and exercise keep my blood sugar within normal limits.”
B. “If my blood sugar is too high I can just take an extra pill.”
C. “If my blood sugar reading is not staying below 140, I need to report to my doctor.”
D. “Complications of uncontrolled blood sugar include blindness and kidney failure.”

4. Mr. Simmons has CHF (congestive heart failure) that has been controlled with Metoprolol and Lasix for the past year. A nurse’s assessment finds +3 pitting edema of the ankles and feet, a heart rate of 106, a productive cough with foamy sputum, and complaints of feeling tired. The nurse should:

A. Have Mr. Simmons increase his medication dosages
B. Nothing – these finding are normal for a patient with CHF
C. Tell him to keep his feet raised
D. Immediately report assessment findings to the physician and await orders

5. A 10-year-old pediatric patient complains of a generalized itchy rash while taking Amoxicillin for an upper respiratory infection. The nurse should:

A. Tell the parents to withhold the medication until the physician is notified
B. Tell the parents to continue the medication until it is all taken, the rash is not important
C. Have the patient rushed to the ER
D. Educate the parents – this happens a lot with antibiotic treatments

6. At what age would a positive Babinski reflex signal a possible problem in a child?

A. 4 month old
B. 16 month old
C. 8 month old
D. 6 month old

7. A patient receiving TPN (Total Parenteral Nutrition) is fed a complete diet by:

A. A tube entering the stomach
B. A tube entering the intestine
C. A central venous catheter in a large vein that enters the heart
D. A peripheral IV

8. Ms. Perry’s medication is due at 10:00 A.M. At what time would a variance or error report need to be filed if the medication is not given at 10:00?

A. 10:30
B. 09:45
C. 10:50
D. 10:05

9. The nurse notices a red area on a bony prominence that looks blistered, but not open, when she turns and repositions her patient. She will report it to the supervisor, measure it, and document that her patient has a:

A. Stage 1 pressure sore
B. Stage 2 pressure sore
C. Stage 3 pressure sore
D. Stage 4 pressure sore

10. Nurses maintain skin integrity by doing all of the following except:

A. Keep the patient in bed as much as possible for safety
B. Make sure the patient stays clean and dry
C. Exercise and reposition at least every two hours
D. Use lotions and gently massage dry skin

NCLEX-PN Test Practice Questions: Health Promotion and Maintenance – Answers and Rationales

1. Correct answer: C

Using a clean and dry paper towel to turn off the faucet provides a barrier between the germs on the faucet handle and the nurse’s clean hands. A wet or damp towel increases the likelihood of hand contamination because microbes move easily through water.
A – Faucets are used by multiple people and are always considered contaminated.
B – Bare hands (or any living skin) cannot be sterile.
D – Faucets may be considered clean, but not sterile.

2. Correct answer: A

Tachycardia refers to a heart rate above 100 beats per minute. A normal heart rate is 60 – 80 bpm, depending on the patients overall health and conditions.
B – Incorrect since it is opposite of the defining factor.
C – Tachycardia has no relationship to the pain scale.
D – Tachycardia has no relationship to respiratory rate.

3. Correct answer: B

Oral Hypoglycemic medication must be taken only as prescribed. If the patient is experiencing high (or low) blood glucose readings, the physician must be consulted. Taking extra medication can cause severe hypoglycemia, coma, and death.
A – C and D are all true statements.

4. Correct answer: D

These are symptoms of exacerbation of CHF, or worsening of the patient’s condition. Any change in condition must be reported, and usually, new physician’s orders obtained.

A – Nurses cannot change medication dosages without a doctor’s order.
B – These are not normal assessment findings.
C – This answer is incorrect because even though raising the feet may decrease the pedal edema, the primary concern (CHF) is not being appropriately addressed.

5. Correct answer: A

A rash caused by an antibiotic can be the first sign of an allergy to the medication. Continued administration can cause life-threatening symptoms, including anaphylactic shock.
B – The rash is an important symptom of a medication allergy.
C – The patient is not having respiratory symptoms – stopping the medication may alleviate the problem.
D – Rash is not a common occurrence with antibiotic therapy.

6. Correct answer: B

At 16 months old, the Babinski reflex should be dissipating. At this age, it can signal possible nerve damage between the spinal cord and brain.
A – C and D are ages at which a positive Babinski sign is a normal reflex.

7. Correct answer: C

TPN flows through a Central Venous Catheter that is usually placed in the neck or just beneath the clavicle. A long catheter is sometimes used in the arm or leg, but it is still threaded through to the heart. A line that begins peripherally is also called a PICC (Peripherally Inserted Cardiac Catheter) line. This way the TPN is readily distributed throughout the body with the least adverse effect on the veins.
A – B and D are incorrect as TPN can only be administered through a CVC (or PICC) into the heart. The digestive system is bypassed, and running TPN through an IV would severely damage the veins.

8. Correct answer: C

At 10:50, the medication is legally late.
A – B and D are incorrect answers. Medications may be administered 30 minutes before, or 30 minutes after the set time. Answer C is the only time outside of these parameters.

9. Correct answer: B

A reddened area with a raised blister or shallow wound is a stage 2 pressure sore.
A – Stage 1 has not blistered; it is a red area that does not blanch when gently pressed
C – A stage 3 pressure sore is an open wound through the skin layers. Adipose tissue may be visible
D – Stage 4 is a full thickness wound. Muscle, bone and tendons may be visible.

10. Correct answer: A

Keeping a patient in bed for prolonged periods greatly increases the risk of pressure sores.
B – C and D are nursing interventions that help maintain skin integrity.

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